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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | - Management
|
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | - Chronic Care
|
Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:
A 48-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of regular, heavy menstrual flow. She has a BMI of 54, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 82 g/L (123-157)
Ferritin: 6 µg/L (11-307)
Endometrial biopsy: Absence of hyperplasia or malignancy
Transvaginal ultrasound:
* Uterus: 12 cm × 8.2 cm × 6 cm
* Intramural fibroids
* Endometrial thickness: 14 mm
* Ovaries: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone
- B. Hysterectomy
- C. Continuous combined oral contraception
- D. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of a low-grade fever and a painful left breast mass. On examination, there is a fluctuant erythematous tender mass with surrounding induration in the left breast and enlarged lymph nodes in the left axilla. An ultrasound shows a loculated cystic mass. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Fibrocystic changes
- B. Abscess
- C. Inflammatory breast cancer
- D. Ductal ectasia
- E. Fibroadenoma
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
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A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. Further inquiry into depressive symptoms.
- B. Short course of anti-inflammatory medications.
- C. Blood work including inflammatory markers.
- D. Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis and right hip.
- E. Physiotherapy for hip strengthening.
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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A 72-year-old man reports that his wife says he has hearing trouble. Examination reveals that air conduction on the right side is less than on the left side and greater than bone conduction bilaterally. He hears a tuning fork placed on the top of his head better with his left ear. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior fossa.
- B. Wax removal from the ears by irrigation.
- C. Audiometry.
- D. Computed tomography scan of the head.
- E. Hearing aid.
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
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A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, presents to the office seeking guidance on the management of her baby once it is born. The patient is in renal failure and has been taking methadone for 3 years to manage her opioid use disorder. During her pregnancy, she has been taking a stable dose of 80 mg of methadone once daily. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Recommend hospitalization for at least 3 days to observe for neonatal abstinence.
- B. Discharge home after birth because neonatal withdrawal is unlikely on a stable maternal methadone dose.
- C. Recommend formula feeding to prevent ongoing exposure through breast milk.
- D. Discuss risks of newborn opioid exposure and discourage its use to avoid neonatal opioid dependence.
- E. Discuss the need for a test dose of naloxone and provide supportive care if required.
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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